In 1 John the author is not suggesting that there are only two sins. the immediate context makes this clear. *** KJV: If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it. All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a sin not unto death. *** We can expand it without losing any precision or accuracy: *** If any man see his brother sin a [type of] sin which is not unto death, he [the man] shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin [of a type] not unto death. There is a [type of] sin unto death: I do not say that he [the man who prays] shall pray for it. All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a [type of] sin not unto death. *** Traditionally there are several different ways of interpreting this. For example: some interpret "a sin unto death" to mean "a sin that CAUSES someone else's physical death" (e.g. murder), and thus "a sin not unto death" is a sin that does not cause anyone's death. For example: some interpret "a sin unto death" in a more spiritual sense, "a sin that causes the sinner to die spiritually, that is to say: causes the sinner to lose their eternal salvation". (See - for support - 1Co 6:9-11) In this interpretation, "a sin not unto death" is a type of sin that does NOT (shall we say) "automatically" deprive the sinner of eternal salvation. *** Of course one can see where certain types of Christian doctrine do not agree with one or the other of these. For example: "once saved, always saved" does not agree well with the second interpretation, while Jesus forgiving those who killed him does not agree well with the first interpretation. *** And I want to emphasize that those are by no means the only two traditional interpretations. There are SEVERAL others.

No such thing as sin that is just what you were led to believe brain washed April 50 2022